Originally posted by Soledad
I don't really know all the details, but I think the proof they have that the man entered into this willingly was because he answered the other man's ad. The ad asked for someone who was willing to be killed and eaten by him. I imagine this would suffice for consent.

Oh! The victim also consented in a video tape.
Hmm, I don't want to be too naughty here but I'm guessing that when this guy responded to an ad calling for a man who wants to be "eaten" he probably didn't think that this sick meant "literally!"

EDIT: I'm serious ... not trying to be rude ...